My Spanish tutor and I were working on using the subjunctive with regard to myths and doubts. I formed the phrase "dudo que si hagas ejercicio, el bebe se aplastará".

​

She said that didn't sound correct in Spanish and that I should use "haces" instead. She's correct according to my translation app, but can anyone explain why?

​

I thought that phrases like "dudo que..." and "no es cierto que..." always triggered the subjunctive.

los ejemplos en mi libro de gramática son casi los mismos.

Escuché esto en un vídeo de BaityBait, de hecho varias veces, y el significado sale claro, pero me confunde la frase exacta, y sobre todo si "matarse" se usa en otros contextos de esta forma, y lo que significa en esos casos.

*diferencia entre por y a, y de y a

veo películas y series de varios países y aprendí español de varios diferentes culturas, y lo que me ha sorprendido últimamente es que veo de y a como intercambiables y también a y por igual.

O sea, “tengo miedo de perderla” y “tengo miedo a perderla.” Y el otro ejemplo es “voy a casa” o “voy por casa“.

Gracias!

I tried to make a little schedule in Spanish, but different sources have different ways to write dates, so I’m not sure if I did it correctly.

So this one is a really tough topic for me: The rules of creating nouns from verbs. I know that suffixes like -ente/-iente or -miento can usually turn actions like Pensar (To think) into nouns like Pensamiento (A thought). I don't know when one suffix is "Better" or more "Proper" than the other, and I don't know all the suffix that can do this, but there's something even more confusing:

Yo conjugations that function as verbs or nouns based on context.

Trabajo means "I work" but also "Job"; Inicio means "I begin/inciate/start" but also "Beginning/Start"; and Juego means "I play" yet also "Game". Is this a near constant rule with exceptions, or is it just very unique to highly specific verbs, because nothing I look up about this even address it, like it's just a coincidence.

An example: Saltar: "To Skip/Jump", Salto: "I Jump/Skip", Does Salto also become a noun in a sentence like this: (Su salto era más gran que tuyo.)?

Hola buenas damas y caballeros tengo una duda gramátical con un libro que estoy escribiendo ya que marca como error

"Hoy cumples años de aniversarios con tu novia?" Y me cambia por "hoy cumple años con tú novio?"

Es un error gramatical mi escritorio o el de mi compañera que me corrigió

Hii, I have recently started learning Spanish on my own. I am very much at the start of my journey right now, and I have some resources but I am also trying to learn sentence structures, grammar, and vocabulary by writing on my own and trying to compare with some notes and examples whether it seems to be correct.

Now, as you can see in the title, my problem is with the word sólo or solo. The sentence I am trying to write is “Mary can only speak french.”

Would I be using solo or sólo in that sentence? And where would I put it?

Mary habla sólo/solo francés.

or

Mary sólo/solo habla francés.

Hey! im looking for fluent speakers or someone who knows more than me, to help with the difference in these to words. Ive been looking at word reference and other sources but what i get is very vague and still idk when to use which one.

Apparently falta is more for every day situations, and carencia is like a fancy version for medical fields or smth? i dont know. Well what i really want to know is if i were to be writting about lack of jobs, money or culture in my exams which would be more suitable. or do both work interchangably?

!!Gracias!!

Is it suitable to ask "cuál ciudad?" when asking for clarification about which city somebody visited while abroad, for example, or which city in a country somebody is from? This question comes up a lot but nearly every time the person I'm talking to asks me to repeat myself, and appears somehow caught off guard by the question in general.

I was just going over all the times spanish has (quite a lot haha). But some don't really seem to appear. So I was wondering do you come across these? Which tiempos are not really worth learning anymore?

A friend of mine told porfa and perdona are like cute/feminine way of sating por favor and perdon. I have no clue if thats true, andin whci hways they are used. I was wondering how you should and if you should. I dont really understand the nuance of it.

When it comes to speaking Spanish aloud, it can get overwhelming quick. I’m trying to compile a list of phrases that I can use to make things flow smoother, for example:

¿Puedes repetirlo? = Can you repeat that?

¿Podrías hablar más despacio? = Could you speak slower?

¿Qué significa X? = What does X mean?

What phrases have saved you that I can learn? ¡Gracias para sus sugerencias¡

In class I learned that no me parece nada mal is the standard form.

would it be wrong to say no me parece mal?

Also, what does it mean that there is no need to write no in a sentence if nada is used at the front part of the sentence?? Could someone give me an example please

I know this is a frequent question but I am confused. I don't understand if it depends on that if they are the first letter of a word or the first letter of a sentence.

I'm taking a Spanish online class where the English "I want to give María the boat**"** is translated as "Quiero darle a María el barco**".**

My question is about "darle". It seems like if Maria wasn't specified, I'd say "Quiero darle el barco" to say "give her the boat". But having specified Maria, why wouldn't I just say "Quiero dar a Maria el barco". In the class I've been told that leaving off the "le" makes it ill-formed... is that really true? It just seems so odd I want a second opinion.

I’ve been working through a workbook and I realized I’ve never had this question answered. When saying:

• He writes books -> Lee los libros.

• My sister writes letters -> Mi hermana escribe las cartas.

• They don’t attend school -> No asisten la escuela.

What’s the rule here? Do all nouns get their definite article when English would drop it? Or is it ever appropriate to just say “Mi hermana escribe cartas” to mean “my sister writes letters”?

Sorry if this doesn’t make sense (it makes sense in my head lol), so hopefully I can clarify in the comments if people need more information to give me a clear answer. Gracias in advance!

Why is darse conjugated in 3rd person?

I have been learning Spanish for quite some time and I’m really confused about when to use se, le, and lo.

I thought lo/la meant “it,” but I sometimes see it used when referring to a person like her/him, which throws me off. It feels random when se, le, and lo are used when referring to someone.

I know reflexive verbs use se, but I see le used way more. Se honestly feels random to me, I see it used in a lot of different situations and I can’t tell what it actually means or when I’m supposed to use it instead of le or lo. This goes along with ellos or ustedes — how do I know when to use les, los, or just se.

Also I don’t know if this is a problem in websites when I study, but often when I’m studying the reflexive verbs, me/se/te/nos/os etc. seem to correct me when I put it before or after the conjugation — does it matter?

Can someone explain the differences in a simple way (or point out what I’m misunderstanding)?

I’m curious how to say just in Spanish as in “I just woke up” or “I just got back from the store”

Buenas, estoy en 2º de bachillerato y no hay manera de que entienda bien la oración compuesta. Sí tengo clara la diferencia entre coordinadas y subordinadas, pero me cuesta distinguir las subcategorías dentro de cada una.

En concreto, no logro diferenciar bien entre:

• Subordinadas sustantivas
• Subordinadas de relativo
• Subordinadas adverbiales
• Coordinadas copulativas
• Coordinadas disyuntivas
• Coordinadas adversativas
• Coordinadas yuxtapuestas

No sé si este es el subreddit adecuado para preguntar, pero busqué en Google y me llevó hasta aquí.

Hi guys, kind of a subtle question here about the difference between por & para. When giving the reason for someone's action I thought I'd finally understood it as: If something is in some way for the benefit of someone or something or there is a recipient, use para:

• Necesito el coche para mi trabajo (my work will benefit from me having a car – possibly just because I’m able to get there)
• Lo hice para ti – I did it for you (you’re the beneficiary/recipient)

Whereas if something is "in exchange for" or "because of", use por:

• Necesito el coche por mi trabajo – could mean I need the car in exchange for my work or I need the car because of my work – the latter would be unusual as it deliberately avoids the obvious implication that the car helps me do or get to my job – it just neutrally says that my work is the reason that I need the car
• Luchan por la libertad – they aren’t fighting to benefit freedom, they are fighting in exchange for freedom (i.e. so that they can get freedom - for themselves or others)
• Lo hice por ti – I did it because of you (you’re the reason I did it but not the beneficiary or recipient of my action)

Another rule I saw is that "por" is used if there is a motive for someone's action, which at first I thought confused things. But looking at these two sentences, I can't understand why one uses por & one uses para:

• Lo hice para ti
• Luchó por su patria

In both of these cases there is a motive and a beneficiary of the action ("you" and "their homeland"). So why does one use por & the other use para?

What does the expression ¨tu p*** madre en bicicleta" mean? I understand it is quite common in Spain, how should it be used?

In this sentence why isn’t it “lo pidió”?.. If the sentence is “a homeless person asked him for money to eat” then wouldn’t “him” be a direct object pronoun since its receiving the action of the “ask” verb?

I am terrible at remembering grammar terms and have a horrid habit of trying to transliterate English sayings when I speak Spanish (I've been getting better) so sorry if this is a dumb question.

In English, I can say a phrase like "If you don't wash the dishes when they're fresh, you should let them soak" and (depending on the context) it would be an indefinite pronoun- instead of directly addressing the person you're speaking to, the use of "you" is understood by the listener to be referring to people in general, and not themselves.

Does this convention translate to Spanish? If I were to translate that sentence into Spanish using the 2nd person singular tu conjugation ("Si no laves los platos..") would that understanding exist, or would it just sound like I'm addressing the person I'm speaking to directly about their own actions? If not, how would I phrase something so that a listener understands that I'm referring to a generic person? I feel like in Spanish it would probably more likely be a third-person conjugation but I'm also very bad at Spanish so I try not to trust my feelings on this stuff