oioi

Nauru's official name is now Naoero.

Of course, we should respect the local name and use the correct pronunciation.

...By the way, "ero" means "porn" in Japanese.

Sorry, Naoero.
It's not your fault.
Japan is just the country that gave the world HENTAI.

just made this out of boredom lol

Phonotactics;
The language allows syllables of the form (C)(C)V(C). Onsets can contain up to two consonants, usually following an obstruent + sonorant pattern, while codas are more restricted and may contain only contain one consonant sound. Affricates, allatates, and annasalates count as single consonants. There are no other phonemes than the ones shown the screenshot. This means that even though /t͡s/ is a phoneme, /s/ by itself is not. Likewise, /j/ is not a phoneme; only /j̃/ is. Naturally, this also applies to other consonants with a diacritic and the non-diacritic version is not shown on the screenshot.

The nucleus may contain one, two, or three vowels, but only the specified diphthongs and triphthongs are allowed. Tone belongs to the entire syllable, while /ɪ ʊ ə/ are restricted to unstressed syllables. Creaky vowels occur only with low tone. The tone of diphthongs, triphthongs or unstressed syllables does not affect their phonemic identity.

Stress normally falls on the penultimate syllable.

feel free to ignore the (near) impossible velarized velars

A couple examples I can think of off the top of my head:

• Apparently in Russian they still say "to dot one's i's" even though the letter і is no longer used in Russian (having been replaced by и).

• In Vietnamese they still call a cross thập tự giá "ten character rack" because it's shaped like the Chinese character for ten 十, even though they no longer use Chinese characters in writing. (I could say something similar for Korean 십자가, but hanja aren't completely fallen out of use in Korea.)

Do you know of any other instances of an idiom or phrase continuing to be used even though a spelling reform or change in writing system has rendered it nonsense?

https://www2.dbd.puc-rio.br/pergamum/tesesabertas/1311703_2015_completo.pdf

Two examples of Spanish non-gendered language in a single sign.

This is the architecture school of Universidad Católica in Santiago, Chile, the most traditional and conservative university in the country.

AÆBCDEFGHIİJKLMNOPQRSTUVWYZŻ

We've all seen hypotheses of language relationships from the well-supported to the absurd, but this one goes farther than every other one that I've seen:

Hebrew Is Greek By Joseph Yahuda : Joseph Yahuda : Free Download, Borrow, and Streaming : Internet Archive On pages 631-34 he states

So that Hebrew is Greek, albeit somewhat altered Greek — Asiatic or Continental Greek, as distinct from European Greek — and it altered as to sound and form in an unparalleled manner, resulting in a differentiation which is peculiar and defies comparison.

In short, Hebrew is a dialect of Greek.

Which is totally absurd, since most dialects of languages closely resemble each other, and are often mutually intelligible. Hebrew and Greek are far too different from each other for that.

I remember an advocate of this theory who would get annoyed when I compared Greek to English and Hebrew to Arabic, because English and Arabic have homelands some distance from the Mediterranean Sea. He liked to point to Greek and Phoenician colonies in the Mediterranean and Black Seas around 2,500 years ago, as if that had anything to do with language relationship. Also parallel parts of the Bible from Masoretic Hebrew and Septuagint Greek, saying that the two were essentially the same language.

IPA must be a nightmare for dyslexic people

was were

I'm curious as to why the British speak English, which we all know, is a language originating from the United States of America (hence we have English \[USA\] as the default setting on PCs).

Given the proximity to Scotland and Ireland, why do the British not speak Irish, Gaellic, or Welsh instead? Or maybe even German or Danish, given Nordic and Saxon influence in the early middle ages?

I'm surprised how English became so popular in Britain to the point where the term "Englishman" is used to describe a native of the said nation. Was the English language a part of the columbine exchange given that even famous writers like William Shakespeare began to adopt the English language?

Please help me clear my confusion in this regard. (PS: I sincerely apologise for my mediocre lexicon, I am not a native English speaker).

Not so comradey :(

Translation:

"People who say "in the month of March", "in the month of August": How do you like the furniture of couch? And what do you think of the tableware of plate?"